1. ‘A’ school ‘Z’ with intention of killing him ‘Z’ dies in consequences ‘A’ is quality of.
(1) Murder
(2) Culpable homicide
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) None of the above
2. A imports in to India or export therefrom, any counter feit coin knowing the same to be counter feet is, quality under section - -- of IPC
(1) 234
(2) 235
(3) 236
(4) 237
3. Intentional omission to give information, of offence by a person legally found to inform is dealt under section
(1) 202
(2) 203
(3) 204
(4) 205
4. The word “Public servant” denotes. A person falling under---
(1) A commissioned officer in the miletary
(2) Every judge empowered by law to do any adjudicatory functions
(3) Every officer of court of justice
(4) All the above
5. Section 29A of IPC is related to
(1) Documents
(2) Valuable security
(3) Electronic record
(4) None of the above
6. ‘A’ a soldier, fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer in confirmity with the commands of the law A has committed no offence, his defence comes under section ---- of IPC
(1) Sec. 76
(2) Sec. 77
(3) Sec. 78
(4) Sec. 79
7. When the right of private defens of property extends to causing death
(1) Robbary
(2) House breaking by night
(3) Mischief by fire committed on any building used for human dwelling
(4) All the above
8. Whoever wages waragainst the government of India or attemptes to wage such wor shall be punished with
(1) Imprisionment up to 14 years with fine.
(2) Death or Imprisionment of life with fine
(3) Imprisionment up to 10 years with fine
(4) Imprisionment up to 7 years with fine
9. Which kind of hurt is not a previous hurt
(1) Emasculation
(2) Privation of any member of joint
(3) Disfiguration of the head of face
(4) Fracture or dis location of tooth
10. ‘A’ shakes his fist at Z, intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause z to believe that ‘A’ is about to strike 2, A has-
(1) Commilted force
(2) Commilted assault
(3) Commilted gave provacotion
(4) None of the above
11. A lets a house to B at yearly rent of Rs. 12000/- The rent for the whole of the years 2015, 2016 and 2017 is due and unpaid. A sues B in 2018 only for the rent due for the year 2016. Whether A can after wards sue for the rent due for the year of 2015 and 2017?
(1) Yes
(2) No
(3) If he shows good cause
(4) None of the above
12. Sec 10 of the civil procedure code is related to
(1) Res-judicata
(2) Res-subjudice
(3) Stay of suit
(4) None of the above
13. Sec 96 of civil procedure code applies to oppeal from
(1) Against injuction order
(2) Original decree
(3) Restoration order under - order 9 rule 13
(4) None of the above
14. Where a person commits a public nuisance
(1) He is liable to criminal prosecution under IPC
(2) Suit may be filed against him under sec 91 of civil procedure code
(3) Suit for damages may be filed against him
(4) All the above
15. Time limit for filing written statement is 30 days which may be extended up to 90 days shall be counted from
(1) Date of filing of the suit
(2) Date of first hearing fixed by the court
(3) Date of service of summon on the defendant
(4) None of the above
16. Principle of res-judicata does not apply to
(1) Suits
(2) Execution of decree
(3) Arbitration proceeding
(4) All the above
17. On which ground plaint can not be rejected?
(1) Where it does not disclose cause of action
(2) Plaint is filed in such court which doesnot have jurisdiction to try the suit
(3) Where suit appears to be barred by law
(4) Where plaint is not filed in duplicate
18. Which section is related to the pecuniary jurisdiction of the court?
(1) Section 6
(2) Section 10
(3) Section 15
(4) None of the above
19. Order 32 of the code of civil procedure is related to?
(1) Suit by or against minors and persons of unsound mind
(2) Suit by or against trustees executors and administration
(3) Suit related to malters concerning family
(4) None of the above
20. If a right or a liability is created by a staute, which of the following situation may arise-
(1) The statute may create a specific forum for its inforcement
(2) If no machinery is provided for enfercement civil court can entertain. The suit
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) None of the above
21. When police may arrest without warrant
(1) Who commits, in the presence of police officer a cognizable offence
(2) Who has been proclaimed as on offendev by state government
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) None of the above
22. Under which of Cr.P.C. assistant public prosecutor is appionted by the government
(1) Section 24
(2) Section 25
(3) Section 26
(4) Section 29
23. Who is competent to issue a conditional order for removal of nuisance under section 133 of Cr.P.C.
(1) District Magistrate
(2) Sub divisional magistrate
(3) Executive magistrate
(4) All the above
24. Congnizence under section 498 A of IPC can be taken
(1) Upon police report
(2) Upon complaint of victim
(3) Upon complaint of parent and brother sister of victim
(4) All the above
25. Which of the following statements correct
(1) Accused person is not a competent witness
(2) Accused can be punished if he gives false answer in examination section 313 Cr.P.C.
(3) Conviction can be based upon evidence partly recorded by one magistrate and partly record by another magistrate
(4) Compounding of offence under section 320(8) Cr.P.C. does not have effect. Of acquittal.
26. Chief judicial magistrate may pass sentence?
(1) Up to dath
(2) Upto life imprisionment
(3) Upto 10 year imprisionment
(4) Upto seven year imprisionment
27. When any person has reason to believe that he may be arrested on an accusation of having commited a non bailable offence he may apply for anticipatory bail under.
(1) Section 436 Cr.P.C.
(2) Section 437 Cr.P.C.
(3) Section 438 Cr.P.C.
(4) Section 439 Cr.P.C.
28. Who is not competent to pass an order under section 106 Cr.P.C. to take security. For keeping the peace on conviction
(1) Judicial magistrate first class
(2) Additional session judge
(3) Chief judicial magistrate
(4) Executive magistrate
29. Power of court to convert summons case in to warrant case is provided uner
(1) Section 302 Cr.P.C.
(2) Section 259 Cr.P.C.
(3) Section 301 Cr.P.C.
(4) Section 322 Cr.P.C.
30. The provision to tender pardon to an accomplice is given in.
(1) Section 265 Cr.P.C.
(2) Section 306 Cr.P.C.
(3) Section 280 Cr.P.C.
(4) Section 288 Cr.P.C.
31. ‘A’ is tried for murder of ‘B’ intensely beating him with a club causing his death, which of the following facts are is issue
(1) A’s beating ‘B’ with club
(2) A’s causing B’s death by such breating
(3) A’s intention to cause B’s death
(4) All the above
32. A desires, a court to give judgement that he is entitled to certain land in the possession of B or basis of certain facts. Which ‘B’ denies to be true under section 101 of evidence act-
(1) A can not prove the existence of those facts
(2) A need not prove the existence of those facts
(3) A must prove the existence of those facts
(4) None of the above
33. Relevant facts to consider a statement under section 32 of evidence act, are
(1) When if relates to cause of death
(2) When it relates to existence of relationship
(3) When it is made in will or in deed relating to family affair
(4) All the above
34. Essential requirement for application of section 27 of Evidence act are
(1) Person giving information must be an accused of any offence
(2) The person must be in police custody
(3) The person may or may not be in police custody
(4) A & B both
35. When court is to form an opinion regarding electronic signature then opinion of certifying officer who issued electronic signature is.
(1) Not admissible in evidence
(2) Is relevant
(3) Not relevent
(4) None of the above
36. When any faet is especially with in the knowledge of accused, the furden of proving that fact is upon.
(1) Accused
(2) Prosecution
(3) Either accused or prosecution
(4) None o the above
37. Husband and wife are competent witness against each other in.
(1) In civil and criminal cases
(2) Only in civil cases
(3) Only in criminal cases
(4) Only under investigation
38. Presumption as to dowary death is provided in - sec of evidence act
(1) Sec 113 A
(2) Sec 113 B
(3) Sec 114 A
(4) Sec 111A
39. Queen V Abdulla (1885) all 385 case law is related to
(1) Conduct
(2) Consequences
(3) Motive
(4) Prepration
40. Whether following document are public documents
(1) Relating to acts or records of ads of the sovereign authority
(2) Public record kept in state of private documents
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) None of the above
41. A owes B Rs. 1000/- but the debt is barred by the limitation act. A signs a written promise to pay B Rs. 500/- on account of debt
(1) This is not a contract
(2) This is a contract
(3) Either A or B
(4) None of these
42. A agrees to buy from B a certain horse, It turns out that the horse was dead at the time of bargaing though neither party was aware of the fact
(1) This agreement is void
(2) This agreement is valid for compensesion
(3) Either A or B
(4) None of these
43. A employees b to beat C and agree to indemnify him against all consequences of the act. B there upon beats C and pays damages to C for so doing
(1) A is liable to indennify B for these dameges
(2) A is partially liable to indemnify to those dameges
(3) A is not liable to indemnify B for these damages
(4) None of these
44. A for natural love and affection promises to give his son B Rs 100000/- A puts his promis to ‘B’ in to writing and register it this is a…….?
(1) Contract
(2) Promise only
(3) Proposal
(4) None or the above
45. In order to convert a proposal into a promise tha acceptance must
(1) Be absolute and qualified
(2) Be expressed in some usual and reasonable manner
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) None of the above
46. Court fees act defines fees on document filed, etc in mufassal courts or in public office under
(1) Section 5
(2) Section 6
(3) Section 7
(4) Section 8
47. Fee on memorandum appeal against order relating to compensation is provided under.
(1) Section 7
(2) Section 8
(3) Section 9
(4) None of the above
48. Under court fees act - the exemption of certain documents from fees include-
(1) Written statement
(2) Plaint and proceess
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) None of the above
49. Where the court refers the parties to the suit to the mode of settlement of dispute reffered to section 89 of C.P.C. plaintiff shall be entitled to refund of court fees under --- section of court fee act
(1) Sec. 16
(2) Sec. 17
(3) Sec. 18
(4) None of the above
50. Under section 35 of the court fees act state government remits the court fees where plaintiffs annual income does not exeed Rs 25000/- to
(1) Member of seheduled castes
(2) Member of seheduled tribiles
(3) Women
(4) All of these
51. Cultivate personally means under the chhattisgarh land revenue code
(1) By one’s own labour
(2) Industrial labour
(3) Technician
(4) None of these
52. When a witness fails to comply with the summons --- may be issued under CG. Land revenue code
(1) Bilable and arrest warrant
(2) To farnish security for appearance
(3) Fine not exceeding Rs 1000/-
(4) All of the above
53. The assessment of land revenue on any land shall be made with reference to the use of land
(1) For edeucation purpose
(2) For industrial purpose
(3) For commercial purpose
(4) All of the above
54. Section 118 of chhatisgarh land revenue code related to
(1) Obligation to furnish information as to title
(2) Presumbtion as to entries in land records
(3) Dispute regarding entry in khasra or in any other land record
(4) None of the above
55. Under chhattisgarh land revenue code define government title to minerals
(1) Sec 250
(2) Sec 249
(3) Sec 247
(4) Sec 248
56. Chapter 5 of the chhattisgarh land revenue code is related to
(1) Appeal
(2) Revision
(3) Review
(4) All the above
57. The document registration of which is ooptional have been dealt in.
(1) Section 16 of registration act
(2) Section 17 of registration act
(3) Section 18 of registration act
(4) Section 19 of registration act
58. A document executed out of India can be registered if presented with in
(1) Two month of its arrival in India
(2) Four month of its arrival in India
(3) One month of its arrival in India
(4) Six month of its arrival in India
59. Under section 32 of registration act a document for registration canbe presented-
(1) By the person executing the document
(2) By the representative of the excutor
(3) Bu the agent of the executor authorised
(4) Any of the above
60. The term negotiation of the negotiable instrument act 1881. referes to
(1) The transfer of a bill of exchange, promissory note or cheque to any person, so as to constitute the person the holder there of
(2) The payment by a bank on a negotiable instrument after due verification of the instrument
(3) The bargaining between the parties to a negotiable instrument
(4) All of the above
61. When presentmant for payment is to be made under section 65 of the act?
(1) Presentment for payment must be made at any reasonable time
(2) Presentment for payment must be made during the useal hours of business and, if at a bank
(3) There is no such stipulation on time for presentment
(4) None of the above
62. For what term of imprisonment an offender under section 138 of the negotiable instruement act can be punished
(1) For a term which may extend to two years
(2) For a term which may extend to one years
(3) For a term exceeding three years
(4) None of the above
63. At sight under the negotiable instrument act means
(1) On presentation
(2) On demand
(3) On coming into vision
(4) None of the above
64. Dishnour of cheque for insufficiency of funds etc. In the account related to
(1) Section 137 of N.I. Act
(2) Section 138 of N.I. Act
(3) Section 139 of N.I. Act
(4) Section 141 of N.I. Act
65. Section 13 of the chhattisgarh excise act related to-
(1) Passes for import, export or transport
(2) Lience required for manufacture etc of intoxicants
(3) Requirement of pass for import, export or transport
(4) All the above
66. Under chhattisgarh exise act the penalty for certain unlawful acts of licenced vendor defined-
(1) Section 38
(2) Section 37
(3) Section 36
(4) Section 35
67. On the direction of state government duty may be leviedon excisable articles
(1) Imported
(2) Exported
(3) Teransported
(4) All the above
68. Prohibition of sale of liquor intoxicating drug to person under age or 21 years provided under-
(1) Section 22 of the CG excise act
(2) Section 23 of the CG excise act
(3) Section 24 of the CG excise act
(4) Section 25 of the CG excise act
69. Limit of quantity for the possession of intoxicant has been provided in - section of chhattisgarh exise act
(1) Section 10
(2) Section 16
(3) Section 18
(4) Section 13
70. Section 21 of the specific relief act is related to-
(1) Power to award compensation in certain cases
(2) Power to grant relief for possession partition refund of earnest money etc
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) None of the above
71. The state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age-
(1) 8-16 year
(2) 6-14 year
(3) 8-18 year
(4) None of the above
72. Which is not related to freedom to manage religious affairs under constitution of India-
(1) To establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purpose
(2) To manage its own affair in matter of religion
(3) To administer such properly in accordance with law
(4) To payment of taxes for promotion of any partiular religion
73. Provisions as to the adminitration of tribal areas inn the state of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram is in which sehedule of constitution of India
(1) Third sehedule
(2) Eight schedule
(3) Fifth schedule
(4) None of the above
74. Under which article the defination of state include the government and parliament of India, government and legislative of state and all local authorities in the territory of India
(1) Article 11
(2) Article 12
(3) Article 13
(4) Article 9
75. Which of the following articles of the constitution provide for the protection of right of freedom of speech.
(1) Article 19
(2) Article 20
(3) Article 18
(4) Article 21
76. In which of the contingencies articles 31 A (1) of Indian - constitution applies
(1) Acquisition of an estate
(2) Extinguishment of right in an estate
(3) Modification of right in an estate
(4) All of the above
77. To remove the president from the post impeachment can be brought on the ground of
(1) Voilation of constitution
(2) Misconduct
(3) Corruption
(4) All of the above
78. vice president may be removed from his post by resolution of members of council of state?
(1) By at least majority of then member and greed by house of people
(2) By 2/3 rd majority of then member
(3) By 3/4th majority of then member
(4) By supreme court only
79. President’ resignation shall by given to-
(1) Speaker of house of people
(2) Vice president
(3) Chief justice of India
(4) Prime minister
80. What is maximum age for retirment of president-
(1) 65 years
(2) 70 years
(3) 75 years
(4) None of the above
81. In movalbe property does not include-
(1) Standing limber
(2) Growing crop
(3) Grass
(4) All the above
82. See 6 of transfer of property act is related to-
(1) Transfer of property
(2) Person competent to transfer
(3) What may be transferred
(4) None of the above
83. Provisions of longor period in the matter of accamulation of property under sec 17 of TP act amounts to
(1) 18 years
(2) 20 years
(3) 22 years
(4) 25 years
84. Under transfer of property act where two or more persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing fr the ownership of another, neither thing of both things being money only, the transfer is called-
(1) A transfer
(2) An exchange
(3) A lease
(4) An eviction
85. The foundation of doctrine of election under the transfer of property act is that a person taking the benefit of an instrument-
(1) Must not bear the burden
(2) Burden is not the subject matter of election
(3) Must bear the burden
(4) None of the above
86. Time requisite under the limitation act means
(1) Minimum time
(2) Maximum time
(3) Actual time taken
(4) Absolutely necessary time
87. Legal disability of limitation act applies in case of-
(1) Illness
(2) Poverty
(3) Insolvency
(4) None of the above
88. Sec 14 of limitation act will have no application-
(1) Where the suit is dismissed after adjudication on its merits
(2) Where the suit is dismised because the court was unable to entertain it
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) Neither (a) nor (b)
89. Under limitation act applicant includes-
(1) A petitioner
(2) Any person from or through whom an applicant derives his right to apply
(3) Any person whose state is represented by the applicant an executor, administrator of other representative
(4) All of the above
90. Sec 6 of the limitation act is related to-
(1) Bar of limitation
(2) Legal disability
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) None of the above
91. Sec 2(14) of the chhattisgarh rent control act is related to
(1) Tenant
(2) Social nuisanes
(3) Rent
(4) Municipal
92. Constitution of the rent control tribunal is under
(1) Sec 3
(2) Sec 4
(3) Sec 5
(4) Sec 6
93. Powers and functions of the rent control tribanl dues not include
(1) Recoinciling disputess between land lord and tenant
(2) Establishment of rent controller
(3) Fanctioning as appellate authonily
(4) (B) and (C)
94. The rent controller shall execute the order through one of more than one modes-
(1) Attachment and sale of the movable or immovable property of the opposite party
(2) Arrest and detention of the opposite party
(3) Attachment of any one or more bank accounts
(4) All of the above
95. Sec 12 of the chhattisgarh rent control act is related to
(1) Procedure to be followed by rent controllers and rent control tribunal
(2) Rights and obligation of land lord and tenants
(3) Repeal and saving
(4) None of the above
96. Which of the following are true about the word “possession” used in sec 5 of the relief act
(1) It is prima facie proof of property
(2) It is good title against all who can not showbetter title
(3) It is constituted by itself, a limited title to the property
(4) All of the above
97. What is remedy where a lease or agreed to sell property to his lease and accepted part of the price
(1) Speific performa
(2) A suit for eriction
(3) Either A or B
(4) Non of these
98. Schedule - 1 of the chhattisgarh rent control act is related to
(1) Tenant rights available under the act
(2) Land lords rights available under the act
(3) Land lord’s obligation under the act
(4) Non of the above
99. Which of the contracts can not be speifically enforced-
(1) A contract which is in its nature determinalbe
(2) A contract for the non performance of which compensation in money is an adequable relief
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) Non of the above
100. Specific performance of a contract can not be enforced in favour of a person
(1) Who would not be entitled to recover compensation for is breach
(2) Who has become incapable of performing
(3) Who fails to over and prove that he has performed
(4) All of the above
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